Why is it that (for example) if you had a 10 watt rms amp and replaced it with a 60 watt rms amp and left everything else the same there is a significant audable difference?? But, if you a 1000 watt rms amp and replaced it with a 1050 rms amp and left everyhting else in the system the same the difference is not noticable?? The difference in amplifier output is the same, 50 watts rms in both cases, yet the audable difference in each scenerio is not the same. Explain.
To actually hear a difference.You basically have to double the power to notice the difference.Mainly cause you have to double the power to double the sound.
What do you mean it's not that hard? They are both increased by the same amount. Therefor it seems as though the sound ought to also increase by the same amount.
it is kinda like dealing with money, i have on penny, i can buy one candy. simple yes? Now i have 6 pennies i can buy 6 candies... still with me? now i have $4.80 i can buy a box of candy. now i have $4.86 i can buy a box plus 6 candies... now i have $486,000,000 i can buy the candy company. get it? it went up the same and it wasnt as satisfying but it went up the same percent and it was.(i know it didnt go up the same percent just an example)
10 to 60 watts = 500% increase becouse it doubled it's self 6 times
1000 to 1050 = .05% increase becouse it didn't nearly even double its' self
(Thoes Equations ARE real percentiles)
Anonymous
Posted on
1000 to 1050 = 5% increase
1000 to 1005 = .05% increase
(Those equations ARE real percentiles)
jungala
Unregistered guest
Posted on
right so you shouldn't be able to tell the difference in a 5% increase in power unless.....your a DOG!! but 500% is an impressive increase in power thus you can easily hear it
